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Question: Purpose of Baptism in England during 1st half of 19th century

Question: Purpose of Baptism in England during 1st half of 19th century

Posted: 1 Jan 2015 9:10AM GMT
Classification: Query
Edited: 2 Jan 2015 2:24PM GMT
If a child born in, say Spitalfields, London, is baptised in Ch Ch, Spitalfields, does that make the child C of E or was baptism in the nearest branch Established Church a necessary requirement for civil registration, regardless of the persuasion of the parents? Would the parents of the child have to be C of E to have their child baptised by the Established Church? If, in this case, the father of the child baptised in Ch Ch, Spitalfields sung in the choir of the dissenting Surrey Chapel in the Blackfriars Rd, can any inference be drawn about the father's persuasion?

And Happy New Year to all readers.

MF

Re: Question: Purpose of Baptism in England during 1st half of 19th century

Posted: 1 Jan 2015 10:35AM GMT
Classification: Query
Baptism was certainly not a prerequisite for civil registration. As the established church, the Church of England does not require active "membership". Generally speaking, any parishioner (i.e. a person living within the parish boundaries) has the right to be married, buried (if the parish has burial facilities) or have their children baptised in the parish church.

In the case you describe, it is probable that the father was a member of a dissenting congregation. Perhaps the mother had more traditional beliefs and her wishes prevailed. Or, possibly, the chapel just had a better choir :)

Caroline
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